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Hebrews 8:7

in Hebrews 8

For if that first covenant had been without fault, no place would have been sought for a second.

BSB

The same verse in ASV and KJV ▾

ASV

For if that first covenant had been faultless, then would no place have been sought for a second.

KJV

For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.

This verse in Hebrews 8

Commentary

10 notes on this verse
For if that first covenant had been faultless - see the note on Heb 7:11. It is implied here that God had said that that covenant was not perfect or faultless. The meaning is not that that first covenant made under Moses had any real faults - or inculcated what was wrong, but that it did not contain the ample provision for the pardon of sin and the salvation of the soul which was desirable. It was merely “preparatory” to the gospel.

This site's exposition

no place would have been sought

on Hebrews 8:7-9

God found fault with the people, and His proof is Jeremiah 31:31 to 32. The new covenant is made with the house of Israel, and Jeremiah 31:35 to 36 fixes Israel as a nation like the sun and moon.

The record, by era

The Church Fathers2 voices

A commentator

Oecumenius

The Pseudo-Oecumenian Catena on Hebrews · Written before 550.

proposed

Behold the order! He said that the covenant according to Christ is superior to the old one. And how is this evident? Because, he says, it is established on better promises. For if the promises and the recompenses are better, it is clear that the …

A commentator

John Chrysostom

Homily on Hebrews 14 · Written before 407.

proposed

Whence does appear? In that this the one was cast out, and the other introduced in its place: for it is therefore of force because it is better. For as he says, "If perfection were by" it, "what further need was there, that another priest should rise, after the order of Melchisedec?" (Heb. vii. 11); so also here he used the same syllogism, saying "For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second"; that is, if it made men "faultless." For it is because he is speaking of this that he did not say, "But finding fault with" it, but "But finding fault with them." And "faultless"; that is, useful; not as though it the old Covenant was obnoxious to any charges, but as not being sufficient. He used a familiar form of speech. As if one should say, the house is not faultless, that is, it has some defect, it is decayed: the garment is not faultless, that is, it is coming to pieces. He does not therefore here speak of it as evil, but only as having some fault and deficiency.

The Medieval Church2 voices

A commentator

Thomas Aquinas

Commentary on Hebrews · Written before 1274.

proposed

393. – Then when he says, For if that first covenant had been faultless, there would have been no occasion for a second, he proves that the testament of which Christ is mediator is better for the following reason: If the first testament were faultless, …

A commentator

Theophylact of Ohrid

Commentary on Hebrews · Written before 1107.

proposed

Observe the order. He said that the covenant of Christ is better than the Old. And from where is this evident? From the fact, he says, that it "is established upon better promises." For if the promises and rewards are better, then it is perfectly …

The Puritans and the Awakening1 voice

A commentator

Matthew Henry

1662–1714

Commentary on the Whole Bible (1710)

proposed

); it was a dispensation of darkness and dread, tending to bondage, and only a schoolmaster to bring us to Christ; it was perfect in its kind, and fitted to answer its end, but very imperfect in comparison of the gospel. That it was not sure or stedfast; for the Jews continued not in that covenant, and the Lord regarded them not,

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3 more voices on this verse

The Puritans and the Awakening1 voice

For if that first covenant had been faultless,....

The Nineteenth Century2 voices

A commentator

Jamieson, Fausset & Brown

1802–1910

Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible (1871)

The law in its morality was blameless (Greek, "amomos"); but in saving us it was defective, and so not faultless (Greek, "amemptos"). should no place have been sought--as it has to be now; and as it is sought in the prophecy (Heb 8:8-11). The old covenant would have anticipated all man's wants, so as to give no occasion for seeking something more perfectly adequate.

A commentator

Adam Clarke

1762–1832

Commentary on the Bible · Written before 1832.

proposed

If that first had been faultless - This is nearly the same argument with that in Heb 7:11. The simple meaning is: If the first covenant had made a provision for and actually conferred pardon and purity, and given a title to eternal life, then there could have been no need for a second; but the first covenant did not give these things, therefore a second was necessary; and the covenant that gives these things is the Christian covenant.

The words behind it

12 Greek words

Every Greek word of this verse in the order it stands, with what it means and the door to its own study. The last column counts the times a word stands in the whole Bible: the rarer the word, the more the places it appears belong together.

A shaded row is a word that stands 400 times or fewer in the Bible.

The walk

8 stops

Each card is a verse this one points to, and under it the verses that one points to in turn. Where several paths arrive at the same place, that place is listed first: the text keeps returning to it.

  • Through

    Galatians 3:21

    Is the law, then, opposed to the promises of God? Certainly not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come from the law.

    it leads to

    • Galatians 2:21

      I do not set aside the grace of God. For if righteousness comes through the law, Christ died for nothing.

      Reached by 2 separate paths from here.

    • Romans 9:31

      but Israel, who pursued a law of righteousness, has not attained it.

  • Through

    Hebrews 8:6

    Now, however, Jesus has received a much more excellent ministry, just as the covenant He mediates is better and is founded on better promises.

    it leads to

    • Hebrews 7:22

      Because of this oath, Jesus has become the guarantee of a better covenant.

    • Galatians 3:16–21

      The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. The Scripture does not say, “and to seeds,” meaning many, but “and to your seed,” meaning One, who is Christ.

    • Hebrews 12:24

      to Jesus the mediator of a new covenant, and to the sprinkled blood that speaks a better word than the blood of Abel.

  • Through

    Hebrews 7:18

    So the former commandment is set aside because it was weak and useless

    it leads to

    • Galatians 4:9

      But now that you know God, or rather are known by God, how is it that you are turning back to those weak and worthless principles? Do you wish to be enslaved by them…

      Reached by 2 separate paths from here.

    • Romans 8:3

      For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin.…

    • Acts 13:39

      Through Him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses.

Where this verse is studied

About Hebrews

The Meeting of Abraham and Melchizedek, Dieric Bouts, 1464 to 1467. Public domain.
The Meeting of Abraham and Melchizedek, Dieric Bouts, 1464 to 1467. Public domain.
This page draws on 9 works. Open the list of works

This page draws on Adam Clarke, Commentary on the Bible; Albert Barnes, Notes, Explanatory and Practical, on the Old and New Testaments (1832-1869); Jamieson, Fausset & Brown, Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible; John Chrysostom, Homily on Hebrews 14; John Gill, Exposition of the New Testament (1746-1748); Matthew Henry, Commentary on the Whole Bible; Oecumenius, The Pseudo-Oecumenian Catena on Hebrews; Theophylact of Ohrid, Commentary on Hebrews and Thomas Aquinas, Commentary on Hebrews.